SNAP Verbal Ability Questions 2026: 36 Practice MCQs with Answers, Pattern and Preparation Tips

Reviewed by Kaushik Kapoor

Co-founder and Director of Erudite, a premium MBA entrance coaching institute headquartered in Kolkata. He is an alumnus of XLRI Jamshedpur and St. Xavier’s College, Kolkata, with more than 25 years of experience in MBA entrance preparation, student mentoring, test-prep strategy and academic training.

Last updated: July 29, 2026

SNAP General English tests Reading Comprehension, Verbal Reasoning and Verbal Ability. Based on the latest detailed official structure, it contains 15 questions worth 15 marks within a 60-question, 60-minute test. Each wrong answer attracts a 25% penalty.

This guide includes 36 original SNAP Verbal Ability practice questions, covering grammar, vocabulary, verbal reasoning and Reading Comprehension. Every question includes an answer and a concise explanation.

SNAP General English Pattern: Latest Verified Benchmark

The latest detailed official pattern states that General English carries 15 of the test’s 60 marks. It also allows candidates to attempt sections in any order.

What Does SNAP General English Test?

The official section name covers three broad skill areas.

Reading Comprehension

Candidates may need to identify:

• The central idea
• The author’s purpose or tone
• A valid inference
• The meaning of a word in context
• A statement supported by the passage

Reading Comprehension should not be ignored. Official preparation guidance describes SNAP passages as compact but still emphasises concentration, central-idea identification, vocabulary and time management.

Verbal Ability

Common preparation areas include:

• Subject–verb agreement
• Tenses
• Articles and prepositions
• Pronouns
• Modifiers
• Parallelism
• Sentence correction
• Vocabulary in context
• Synonyms and antonyms
• Idioms and phrasal verbs

Verbal Reasoning

Useful practice types include:

• Para jumbles
• Sentence completion
• Paragraph completion
• Analogies
• Assumptions
• Inferences
• Argument strengthening and weakening

The exact mix can vary. Prepare for the underlying language and reasoning skills instead of depending on a fixed topic-wise question count.

How to Use This 36-Question Practice Set

1. Attempt all 36 questions in 24 minutes during your first attempt.
2. Record your answers without checking the key.
3. Award yourself 1 mark for every correct answer.
4. Deduct 0.25 mark for every incorrect answer to simulate the latest verified marking method.
5. Review every incorrect or guessed answer.
6. Reattempt only the incorrect questions after three to five days.

SNAP Verbal Ability Practice Questions

Part A: Grammar and Usage

1. Neither the regional managers nor the chief executive ___ willing to revise the forecast.

   1. are
   2. is
   3. were
   4. have been

   Answer: B. is

   Explanation: With “neither...nor,” the verb usually agrees with the subject closest to it. “Chief executive” is singular, so “is” is correct.

2. Choose the sentence without a dangling modifier.

   1. After reviewing the report, the errors were obvious.
   2. After reviewing the report, Meera found three errors.
   3. While driving to work, the rain became heavier.
   4. To improve accuracy, the questions were revised by Arjun.

   Answer: B. After reviewing the report, Meera found three errors.

   Explanation: The introductory phrase logically modifies “Meera,” the person who reviewed the report. In the other options, the implied actor is missing.

3. Choose the correct third-conditional sentence.

   1. If the team checked the data, it would not publish the error.
   2. If the team had checked the data, it would not have published the error.
   3. If the team would check the data, it had not published the error.
   4. If the team checks the data, it would not have published the error.

   Answer: B. If the team had checked the data, it would not have published the error.

   Explanation: A third conditional describes an unreal past situation: if + past perfect, followed by would have + past participle.

4. Choose the sentence with correct parallel structure.

   1. The role requires analysing data, presenting insights and to manage stakeholders.
   2. The role requires analysing data, presenting insights and managing stakeholders.
   3. The role requires to analyse data, presenting insights and managing stakeholders.
   4. The role requires analysis of data, presenting insights and to manage stakeholders.

   Answer: B. The role requires analysing data, presenting insights and managing stakeholders.

   Explanation: All three items use the same grammatical form, creating correct parallel structure.

5. The organisation must comply ___ the new regulations.

   1. to
   2. with
   3. for
   4. on

   Answer: B. with

   Explanation: The standard expression is “comply with a rule, law, request or regulation.”

6. Choose the correct sentence.

   1. One of the analysts have identified the error.
   2. One of the analysts has identified the error.
   3. One of the analyst has identified the error.
   4. One of the analysts were identifying the error.

   Answer: B. One of the analysts has identified the error.

   Explanation: The subject is “one,” not “analysts.” The singular verb “has” is therefore required.

7. Choose the correctly written sentence.

   1. She hopes to pursue a MBA at an university in Pune.
   2. She hopes to pursue an MBA at an university in Pune.
   3. She hopes to pursue an MBA at a university in Pune.
   4. She hopes to pursue a MBA at a university in Pune.

   Answer: C. She hopes to pursue an MBA at a university in Pune.

   Explanation: “MBA” begins with a vowel sound, so it takes “an.” “University” begins with a consonant sound—“yoo”—so it takes “a.”

8. Convert the sentence into reported speech: She said, “I have completed the assignment.”

   1. She said that she has completed the assignment.
   2. She said that she had completed the assignment.
   3. She told that she completed the assignment.
   4. She said me that she had completed the assignment.

   Answer: B. She said that she had completed the assignment.

   Explanation: When a present-perfect statement is reported using a past reporting verb, it normally shifts to the past perfect.

9. Choose the sentence with correct use of correlative conjunctions.

   1. The course is not only affordable but also practical.
   2. The course not only is affordable and also practical.
   3. The course is neither affordable but practical.
   4. The course both is affordable or practical.

   Answer: A. The course is not only affordable but also practical.

   Explanation: The correct correlative pair is “not only...but also,” and the connected elements are parallel adjectives.

10. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.

    1. The test was difficult however, I completed it.
    2. The test was difficult; however, I completed it.
    3. The test was difficult, however I completed it.
    4. The test was difficult however I completed it.

    Answer: B. The test was difficult; however, I completed it.

    Explanation: “However” connects two independent clauses. A semicolon can appear before it, followed by a comma.

Part B: Vocabulary, Idioms and Phrasal Verbs

11. The directions were so ___ that two teams interpreted them differently.

    1. explicit
    2. ambiguous
    3. concise
    4. transparent

    Answer: B. ambiguous

    Explanation: “Ambiguous” means open to more than one interpretation.

12. Choose the correct pair of words.

    The ___ economist warned that a recession might be ___.

    1. eminent; imminent
    2. imminent; eminent
    3. eminent; permanent
    4. imminent; prominent

    Answer: A. eminent; imminent

    Explanation: “Eminent” means distinguished or respected. “Imminent” means about to happen.

13. What does mitigate mean?

    1. To make something more complicated
    2. To ignore something completely
    3. To reduce the severity of something
    4. To predict something accurately

    Answer: C. To reduce the severity of something

    Explanation: To mitigate a problem is to make it less serious or harmful.

14. A pragmatic decision is primarily:

    1. Emotional
    2. Practical
    3. Traditional
    4. Theoretical

    Answer: B. Practical

    Explanation: A pragmatic decision is based on realistic and practical considerations.

15. What does the idiom cut corners mean?

    1. To shorten a journey
    2. To save time or money by compromising quality
    3. To divide a task equally
    4. To avoid making a decision

    Answer: B. To save time or money by compromising quality

    Explanation: “Cut corners” generally has a negative meaning and suggests taking an easier or cheaper route at the expense of proper standards.

16. Two departments that are at loggerheads are:

    1. Working in complete agreement
    2. Avoiding communication because of distance
    3. In strong disagreement
    4. Competing for the same physical space

    Answer: C. In strong disagreement

    Explanation: People or groups at loggerheads are involved in a serious disagreement.

17. Choose the antonym of sporadic.

    1. Occasional
    2. Irregular
    3. Scattered
    4. Continuous

    Answer: D. Continuous

    Explanation: “Sporadic” means occasional or irregular. “Continuous” is its clearest opposite among the options.

18. Choose the closest synonym of lucid.

    1. Clear
    2. Lengthy
    3. Doubtful
    4. Decorative

    Answer: A. Clear

    Explanation: A lucid explanation is easy to understand.

19. A person who can speak several languages is called a:

    1. Linguist
    2. Orator
    3. Polyglot
    4. Lexicographer

    Answer: C. Polyglot

    Explanation: A polyglot is someone who can use several languages.

20. The organisers decided to call off the event because of the storm.

    “Call off” means:

    1. Announce
    2. Cancel
    3. Postpone briefly
    4. Attend

    Answer: B. Cancel

    Explanation: To call off an event is to cancel it.

Part C: Verbal Reasoning

21. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

    1. As a result, employees could collaborate without being in the same room.
    2. Early remote-working systems were slow and unreliable.
    3. Cloud platforms and video tools later improved rapidly.
    4. This technological shift made hybrid work practical for many organisations.
    1. B–C–A–D
    2. C–B–D–A
    3. B–A–C–D
    4. C–A–B–D

    Answer: A. B–C–A–D

    Explanation: Sentence B introduces the original problem. Sentence C describes the improvement. “As a result” in A gives the consequence, and D concludes with the wider impact.

22. Identify the sentence that does not belong in the paragraph.

    1. Electric vehicles produce no tailpipe emissions.
    2. Battery costs have declined as production has expanded.
    3. Charging infrastructure can influence the rate of adoption.
    4. Many people prefer tea without sugar.

    Answer: D. Many people prefer tea without sugar.

    Explanation: The first three sentences concern electric vehicles. Sentence D is unrelated.

23. Complete the sentence logically.

    Although the proposal was ambitious, the committee approved it because ___.

    1. no member had read it
    2. its costs were impossible to calculate
    3. its expected benefits were supported by credible evidence
    4. the meeting ended before a vote could be taken

    Answer: C. its expected benefits were supported by credible evidence

    Explanation: “Although” creates a contrast: the proposal was ambitious, but the evidence justified approval.

24. Complete the analogy.

    Blueprint : Building :: Outline : ___

    1. Essay
    2. Pencil
    3. Editor
    4. Library

    Answer: A. Essay

    Explanation: A blueprint is a plan for a building. An outline is a plan for an essay.

25. Read the statement:

    The college has extended library hours during examinations so that students can study later.

    Which assumption is most clearly present?

    1. Every student prefers studying in a library.
    2. Some students need library access after the usual closing time.
    3. Students cannot study during the day.
    4. The college intends to keep the library open all night throughout the year.

    Answer: B. Some students need library access after the usual closing time.

    Explanation: Extending the hours “so that students can study later” assumes that later access is useful to at least some students.

26. A trainer claims that weekly timed quizzes improve students’ speed in SNAP General English.

    Which finding would strengthen the claim most effectively?

    1. Some students enjoy vocabulary questions more than grammar questions.
    2. The quizzes contain questions from several MBA entrance tests.
    3. Faster students usually read newspapers every day.
    4. Students with comparable starting scores who took weekly timed quizzes later solved similar questions faster without losing accuracy.

    Answer: D. Students with comparable starting scores who took weekly timed quizzes later solved similar questions faster without losing accuracy.

    Explanation: This option provides the strongest direct evidence connecting timed quizzes with improved performance.

27. Read the statements:

    All shortlisted applicants submitted a portfolio.

    Some applicants who submitted a portfolio were not shortlisted.

    Which conclusion follows?

    1. Every portfolio submitter was shortlisted.
    2. No shortlisted applicant submitted a portfolio.
    3. Submitting a portfolio was necessary but not sufficient for shortlisting.
    4. Portfolios had no role in the selection process.

    Answer: C. Submitting a portfolio was necessary but not sufficient for shortlisting.

    Explanation: Every shortlisted person submitted a portfolio, making it necessary under the stated conditions. However, some portfolio submitters were not shortlisted, so submission alone was insufficient.

28. Whenever the server is overloaded, response time increases. Today, response time increased.

    Which conclusion is logically safest?

    1. The server was certainly overloaded.
    2. The increase may have been caused by overloading or by another factor.
    3. The server was certainly not overloaded.
    4. Response time never increases for any other reason.

    Answer: B. The increase may have been caused by overloading or by another factor.

    Explanation: The statement says overloading causes slower responses. It does not establish that overloading is the only possible cause.

Part D: Reading Comprehension

Read the passage and answer Questions 29–32.

29. What is the central idea of the passage?

    1. Rereading should be completely avoided.
    2. Retrieval practice and spaced review provide a more reliable test of learning than familiarity alone.
    3. Students should memorise every sentence in their notes.
    4. Difficult study methods are always more effective.

    Answer: B. Retrieval practice and spaced review provide a more reliable test of learning than familiarity alone.

    Explanation: The passage contrasts the feeling of familiarity created by repeated reading with the stronger evidence provided by recalling information without assistance.

30. Which inference is best supported by the passage?

    1. Material that feels familiar has always been mastered.
    2. Self-testing is useful only immediately before an examination.
    3. Difficulty recalling an idea can reveal a gap that needs further study.
    4. Rereading has no educational value.

    Answer: C. Difficulty recalling an idea can reveal a gap that needs further study.

    Explanation: The passage explains that retrieval practice exposes what the learner cannot yet recall.

31. The word retention most nearly means:

    1. The ability to remember information
    2. The speed of reading information
    3. The process of shortening information
    4. The habit of highlighting information

    Answer: A. The ability to remember information

    Explanation: “Long-term retention” refers to keeping information in memory over time.

32. What is the author’s main purpose?

    1. To criticise students who take notes
    2. To compare school and university examinations
    3. To argue that revision is unnecessary
    4. To explain why self-testing should be combined with selective rereading

    Answer: D. To explain why self-testing should be combined with selective rereading

    Explanation: The author supports self-testing while acknowledging that selective rereading can help clarify difficult material.

Part E: Mixed Challenge Questions

33. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

    1. The revised test contains fewer questions but allows less time per question.
    2. The revised test contains less questions but allows fewer time per question.
    3. The revised test contains fewer questions but allows fewer time per question.
    4. The revised test contains less questions but allows less time per question.

    Answer: A. The revised test contains fewer questions but allows less time per question.

    Explanation: Use “fewer” with countable nouns such as questions. Use “less” with uncountable quantities such as time.

34. By arranging backup suppliers before shortages occurred, the company followed the principle:

    1. Too many cooks spoil the broth
    2. A stitch in time saves nine
    3. All that glitters is not gold
    4. Beggars cannot be choosers

    Answer: B. A stitch in time saves nine

    Explanation: The proverb means that taking preventive action early can avoid a larger problem later.

35. Choose the sentence that best completes the paragraph.

    Riya tracked every error in a notebook. She grouped the errors by grammar rule and reviewed them each week. ___. Over time, the number of repeated mistakes declined.

    1. She stopped attempting mock tests entirely.
    2. She copied every question without checking its answer.
    3. This turned each mock test into a targeted revision plan.
    4. The examination contained questions from three sections.

    Answer: C. This turned each mock test into a targeted revision plan.

    Explanation: The sentence logically explains how categorising and reviewing mistakes improved Riya’s future performance.

36. Choose the sentence in which affect and effect are used correctly.

    1. The new policy will affect all applicants, and its effect will be reviewed after six months.
    2. The new policy will effect all applicants, and its affect will be reviewed after six months.
    3. The new policy will affect all applicants, and its affect will be reviewed after six months.
    4. The new policy will effect all applicants, and its effect will be reviewed after six months.

    Answer: A. The new policy will affect all applicants, and its effect will be reviewed after six months.

    Explanation: “Affect” usually means to influence. “Effect” commonly refers to the resulting consequence.

SNAP Verbal Ability Answer Key

How to Prepare for SNAP Verbal Ability

1. Begin With an Accuracy Audit

Attempt 15 mixed General English questions without a strict time limit. Classify every mistake under one of these headings:

• Concept not known
• Vocabulary not known
• Misread question
• Eliminated the correct option
• Guessed without sufficient basis
• Spent too much time

This shows whether your main problem is knowledge, comprehension or test execution.

2. Build a Rule-Based Error Log

Do not record only the correct answer. Record the transferable rule.

For example:

Review the log weekly. An error log is useful only when it changes how you answer the next similar question.

3. Learn Vocabulary in Context

For every new word, record:

• Meaning
• One synonym
• One antonym
• One original sentence
• A commonly confused word, when relevant

For example:

4. Practise Short Reading Comprehension

Read short editorials, business reports and analytical passages. After reading, write:

• The central idea in one sentence
• The author’s purpose
• The tone
• One valid inference

Official SNAP guidance recommends practising central-idea identification, vocabulary and time management for compact Reading Comprehension passages.

5. Add Timed Sets Gradually

A practical progression is:

6. Use Negative Marking Intelligently

Under the latest verified official scheme, an incorrect answer attracts a 25% penalty.

A useful decision rule is:

• Attempt immediately when you know the answer.
• Attempt after elimination when you can remove two or more options with confidence.
• Mark for review when the question is solvable but time-consuming.
• Avoid blind guessing when no option can be eliminated.

Expert Strategy Note

Reviewed by Kaushik Kapoor

Co-founder and Director of Erudite, a premium MBA entrance coaching institute headquartered in Kolkata. An alumnus of XLRI Jamshedpur and St. Xavier’s College, Kolkata, he has over 25 years of experience in mentoring students, MBA entrance preparation, test-prep strategy and academic training.

A 10-minute target for General English can be useful for a candidate who already has strong accuracy, but it should not become a rigid rule. During preparation, first establish which question types you can solve reliably in 20–30 seconds. Skip questions that require prolonged uncertainty and return only after securing the questions within your strongest areas.

Starting the test with General English can work well for some candidates, while others perform better by beginning with Logical Reasoning or Quantitative Aptitude. Since the official instructions permit candidates to attempt sections in any order, determine your sequence through full-length mock analysis rather than copying another student’s strategy.

Frequently Asked Questions

Final Preparation Takeaway

SNAP General English rewards accurate reading, strong fundamentals and quick decisions. Prepare all three officially named areas—Reading Comprehension, Verbal Reasoning and Verbal Ability—rather than assuming the section will contain only grammar or vocabulary questions.

Use the 36-question set as a diagnostic exercise, maintain an error log and repeat timed practice only after understanding every mistake. Most importantly, verify the finalised SNAP 2026 structure and dates through the official website before acting on any exam-related information.